I expect that most experiments don't show any correlation. Only a small percentage show actual correlations.
First of all, all experiments that show correlations have to be repeated many times. That means only there after it becomes clear that there exist a certain relation between the parameters measured.
For example (1): If you measure some one's weight and length over a periods of 10 years you can observe that both increase untill a certain age and then decrease.
This is both true for man and woman.
Using these measurement you can also validate the rule that man on average are longer than woman.
For example (2): You perform a certain reaction (A+B --> C+D) and two photons.
This reaction you perform 100 times and now you get: 90 times 2 photons, 8 times 1 photon, and 2 times 0 photons.
In the case when you get 2 photons you also measure the direction of polarization of both photons and you get:
- The combination (+x and - x) 87 times, the combination (+x and +x) 2 times and the combination (-x and -x) 1 time
What this shows that of the 90 experiments in 87 cases, both a +x and a -x photon are detected. That means the photons are correlated. In 3 cases that was not the case. That means the correlation of the photons is not 100% but less.
Suppose there exist a reaction and all the 2 photons created and measured in 100 experiments are correlated. That means the correlation is 100%. What does that mean?
This means in the next experiment, when you have measured one photon and result is +x that when the other photon is measured the result should be -x (with 100% probability)
That is the physical reality, that is all. The prediction is the result of the original 100 experiments.
When you read the original article it starts with the text (below the foto):
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For entangled particles, a change in one instantly affects the other, no matter how far apart they are
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Is there any reason that this is the case?
No. There is no physical reason to assume that. There is no reason that in each of the individul 100 experiments (in which 2 photons are created) that at the moment when one photon is measured that the other one is affected. No more there is to say.
Suppose you have a collision between a neutron and a molecule X in which an avalanche of elementary particles is created. Suppose one elementary particle is measured. Does such a measurement influence any of the other particles created. IMO the answer is No. I like to hear if I'm wrong.
Reflection 2
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Created: 20 December 2024
Updated: 4 August 2025
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